Some people think that Edward de Vere, Earl of Oxford did wrote the plays instead of Shakespeare.
One reason I don't think Oxford did write the plays is because Oxford had in fact travelled to Italy.
If wrote Measure for Measure, why would he set it in Vienna, when the characters have Italian names? Why wouldn't he just write about a city he had actually visited?
Likewise, why would he write Two Gentlemen of Verona when he is referring to Milan instead?
I like to think that Italy is the land where his dreams lived.
David B. Schajer
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